No sentimentality, just the reality of human history. You did not address the fact that the original US Constitution did not guarantee the right to vote for white men. The only "whites" who received massive generational wealth and power were from the few wealthy families and that's only if the patriarchs didn't get into debt. Some don't …
No sentimentality, just the reality of human history. You did not address the fact that the original US Constitution did not guarantee the right to vote for white men. The only "whites" who received massive generational wealth and power were from the few wealthy families and that's only if the patriarchs didn't get into debt. Some don't want to face that we're all just human, with the same infallibility. There's no special skin color or income level required to read to infants or young children. There's no special skin color or income level required to pay attention in class, do homework and study. The hysterical attacks against JD Vance, who did study in spite of the chaos of poverty and drug addiction around him, and with no "generational wealth," displayed the hypocrisy from many on the left.
The majority of white men were able to vote in 1776.
Edit to add
After declaring independence on July 4, 1776, each former English colony wrote a state constitution. About half the states attempted to reform their voting procedures. The trend in these states was to do away with the freehold requirement in favor of granting all taxpaying, free, adult males the right to vote. Since few men escaped paying taxes of some sort, suffrage (the right to vote) expanded in these states. Vermont's constitution went even further in 1777 when it became the first state to grant universal manhood suffrage (i.e., all adult males could vote). Some states also abolished religious tests for voting. It was in New Jersey that an apparently accidental phrase in the new state constitution permitted women to vote in substantial numbers for the first time in American history
This does not conflict with what I stated. "The original US Constitution did not guarantee the right to vote for white men." It was up to each state. According to Britannica, "States initially allowed only a select few to cast a ballot, enacting property, tax, religion, gender, and race requirements. In the first presidential election (1789), voters were almost all landowning white Protestant males. Movements to end various restrictions were subsequently mounted...it took until 1856 for the last state (North Carolina) to drop property demands for white men." One site states 60% (a majority) of white men could vote in 1776, though I haven't verified that figure. That leaves 40% of white males who could not vote.
No sentimentality, just the reality of human history. You did not address the fact that the original US Constitution did not guarantee the right to vote for white men. The only "whites" who received massive generational wealth and power were from the few wealthy families and that's only if the patriarchs didn't get into debt. Some don't want to face that we're all just human, with the same infallibility. There's no special skin color or income level required to read to infants or young children. There's no special skin color or income level required to pay attention in class, do homework and study. The hysterical attacks against JD Vance, who did study in spite of the chaos of poverty and drug addiction around him, and with no "generational wealth," displayed the hypocrisy from many on the left.
The majority of white men were able to vote in 1776.
Edit to add
After declaring independence on July 4, 1776, each former English colony wrote a state constitution. About half the states attempted to reform their voting procedures. The trend in these states was to do away with the freehold requirement in favor of granting all taxpaying, free, adult males the right to vote. Since few men escaped paying taxes of some sort, suffrage (the right to vote) expanded in these states. Vermont's constitution went even further in 1777 when it became the first state to grant universal manhood suffrage (i.e., all adult males could vote). Some states also abolished religious tests for voting. It was in New Jersey that an apparently accidental phrase in the new state constitution permitted women to vote in substantial numbers for the first time in American history
https://www.crf-usa.org/bill-of-rights-in-action/bria-8-1-b-who-voted-in-early-america
This does not conflict with what I stated. "The original US Constitution did not guarantee the right to vote for white men." It was up to each state. According to Britannica, "States initially allowed only a select few to cast a ballot, enacting property, tax, religion, gender, and race requirements. In the first presidential election (1789), voters were almost all landowning white Protestant males. Movements to end various restrictions were subsequently mounted...it took until 1856 for the last state (North Carolina) to drop property demands for white men." One site states 60% (a majority) of white men could vote in 1776, though I haven't verified that figure. That leaves 40% of white males who could not vote.
It is hard to determine how many white men of all stripes voted in 1789.
https://www.electproject.org/national-1789-present